The text suggests devolution was actually an "old idea" that acquired "new vitality" because

The text suggests devolution was actually an "old idea" that acquired "new vitality" because





a. courts no longer stood in the way of state policies.
b. state constitutions were modified in accordance with federal policies.
c. governors and mayors supported the effort.
d. Congress, rather than the president, was leading the effort.
e. Democratic leaders spearheaded the effort.











Answer: D

When the election of 1994 brought Republican majorities in the House and the Senate, the first key issue in the drive to shift important functions back to the states was

When the election of 1994 brought Republican majorities in the House and the Senate, the first key issue in the drive to shift important functions back to the states was






a. the war on drugs.
b. welfare.
c. Social Security.
d. law enforcement.
e. gender discrimination.







Answer: B

The conditions attached to grants are by far the most important federal restriction on state action because

The conditions attached to grants are by far the most important federal restriction on state action because





a. the Tenth Amendment amplifies their effect.
b. they can change, depending upon the size of the state.
c. they are not subject to review in the courts.
d. state officials play a major role in their interpretation.
e. the typical state depends for a quarter or more of its budget on federal grants.








Answer: E

The text suggests the growth of mandates has been fueled by the fact that

The text suggests the growth of mandates has been fueled by the fact that




a. local citizens can use a federal court to change local practices.
b. Congress has taken a greater interest in busing, state prisons, and police brutality.
c. few courts have an interest in hearing cases related to mandates.
d. the Reagan and Bush administrations supported them so enthusiastically.
e. none of the above.









Answer: A

Which of the following statements is correct?

Which of the following statements is correct?






a. It is difficult to obtain a waiver from an administrative agency with regard to education.
b. There are a high number of unfunded mandates in education policy.
c. The government tends to use more mandates in areas where it spends a great deal of money.
d. The government tends to use more mandates in areas where it spends less money.
e. Environmental protection waivers are fairly easy to obtain.








Answer: D

Most federal mandates concern

Most federal mandates concern





a. sexual harassment.
b. civil liberties and civil rights.
c. civil rights and environmental protection.
d. waste management.
e. law enforcement.








Answer: C

The intense debate over the manner in which the federal government distributes funds and awards contracts has been precipitated by

The intense debate over the manner in which the federal government distributes funds and awards contracts has been precipitated by




a. the reemergence of the Tenth Amendment in Supreme Court jurisprudence.
b. the lack of two party competition in a handful of states.
c. reductions in discretionary spending.
d. a shift in population to the South, Southwest and Far West.
e. popular demand for a balanced federal budget.









Answer: D

Block grants and revenue sharing were efforts to

Block grants and revenue sharing were efforts to



a. ensure that state spending was sensitive to federal policies and goals.
b. reverse trends by allowing states and localities freedom to spend money as they wished.
c. increase the dependency of state governments on federal money.
d. accelerate states spending in areas long ignored by Congress.
e. increase "strings" on money given to state and local officials.









Answer: B

One odd effect of the fair-share formulas used to determine grants for Homeland Security is

One odd effect of the fair-share formulas used to determine grants for Homeland Security is





a. lack of support for major metropolitan areas.
b. lack of support for activities and materials related to public safety.
c. a skew in funding toward states and cities with low populations.
d. confusion of material for personal and public safety.
e. a reduction in the number of public safety workers.










Answer: C

At first, federal money seemed attractive to state officials because

At first, federal money seemed attractive to state officials because




a. there were budget surpluses.
b. the federal income tax was a flexible tool of public finance.
c. the production and distribution of currency was managed by the federal government.
d. it seemed to be "free."
e. All of the above.






Answer: E

Which of the following statements regarding state constitutions is incorrect?

Which of the following statements regarding state constitutions is incorrect?




a. They tend to be far more detailed than the federal Constitution.
b. They tend to embody a more expansive view of government responsibilities.
c. They tend to embody a more expansive view of individual rights.
d. None of the above.
e. All of the above.









Answer: D

The text suggests that, by the 1940s, Supreme Court rulings concerning the commerce clause

The text suggests that, by the 1940s, Supreme Court rulings concerning the commerce clause





a. centered on a rigorous definition of interstate commerce.
b. centered on a rigorous definition of intrastate commerce.
c. almost always distinguished between interstate and intrastate commerce.
d. abandoned hard distinctions between interstate and intrastate commerce.
e. consistently struck down federal attempts to regulate commerce.








Answer: D

The landmark case McCulloch v. Maryland determined that

The landmark case McCulloch v. Maryland determined that




a. a state had the power to tax the federal government.
b. the federal government had the power to tax a state.
c. Congress did not have the power to set up a national bank.
d. the "necessary and proper clause" allowed for the creation of a bank.
e. the Constitution was established by the states.









Answer: D

Alexander Hamilton's view of federalism held that

Alexander Hamilton's view of federalism held that




a. the federal government and the state governments are equals.
b. state governments were superior to the federal government.
c. the federal government was superior to the state governments.
d. the principle threat to the rights of the people would be the federal government.
e. the government was the product of an agreement among the states.










Answer: C

All of the following statements are correct except

All of the following statements are correct except




a. the Constitution does not spell out the powers that the states are to have.
b. the delegates at Philadelphia used "federalism" as a synonym for "unitary."
c. the Tenth Amendment was added at the insistence of the states.
d. the Founders assumed the federal government would have only those powers given to it by the Constitution.
e. the Tenth Amendment has rarely had much practical significance.







Answer: B

According to the text, the most "obvious" effect of federalism has been to

According to the text, the most "obvious" effect of federalism has been to





a. modify ideological conflicts.
b. protect the interests of the upper classes.
c. facilitate the mobilization of political activity.
d. reverse the democratic tendency in the states.
e. increase the scope of the president's power.








Answer: C

A system is not federal unless local units of government

A system is not federal unless local units of government




a. are the official distributors of the national government's resources.
b. exist independently and can make decisions independent of the national government.
c. answer solely to the national government.
d. make decisions in conjunction with national goals and needs.
e. are mere administrative subunits of the national government.









Answer: B

The response of many state legislatures to the Court's decision in the Kelo case was to

The response of many state legislatures to the Court's decision in the Kelo case was to



a. legalize some drugs for medicinal purposes.
b. remove judges who had violated state codes of ethics.
c. expand its scope by amendments to state constitutions.
d. restrict its scope by passage of new laws.
e. restrict freedom of speech near certain public buildings and private businesses.









Answer: D

No women voted in state elections in the United States until

No women voted in state elections in the United States until




a. 1838, in Kentucky school board elections.
b. 1869, in territorial elections in Wyoming.
c. the ratification of the Fifteenth Amendment in 1875.
d. The Great Panic of 1872.
e. the ratification of the Twentieth Amendment in 1920.








Answer: B

Women are specifically mentioned in the original Constitution

Women are specifically mentioned in the original Constitution





a. in the "privileges and immunities" clause [Art. IV].
b. under qualifications for office [Art. I].
c. in language regarding treason [Art. III].
d. in Article I, Section 8, Clause 3.
e. nowhere.










Answer: E

Sophisticated statistical analysis of the voting behavior of the Framers of the Constitution suggests

Sophisticated statistical analysis of the voting behavior of the Framers of the Constitution suggests




a. they generally pursued the interests of wealthy land owners and businessmen.
b. they generally acted in a manner to protect the interests of the poor.
c. they consciously ignored the interests of the commercial classes.
d. they generally represented the interests of their respective states.
e. they consciously ignored the interests of the slaveowners.







Answer: D

In the Constitution, slavery was

In the Constitution, slavery was




a. not specifically mentioned.
b. recognized as a necessary institution.
c. outlawed after twenty years.
d. denounced as inhuman.
e. expressly permitted in the South.









Answer: A

The Federalist papers were written

The Federalist papers were written



a. at the suggestion of Benjamin Franklin.
b. to explain democracy to European governments.
c. to help win ratification of the Constitution in New York.
d. principally by Madison and Jefferson.
e. principally by John Jay.











Answer: C

Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?

Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes? 




A) spiral and indeterminate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
B) spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth
C) spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
D) radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes anus
E) radial and determinate cleavage, blastopore becomes mouth




Answer: B

You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is acoelomate?

You have before you a living organism, which you examine carefully. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is acoelomate? 





A) It is triploblastic.
B) It has bilateral symmetry.
C) It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end.
D) Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the body wall.






Answer: D

What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates

What distinguishes a coelomate animal from a pseudocoelomate animal is that coelomates 






A) have a body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have a solid body.
B) contain tissues derived from mesoderm, whereas pseudocoelomates have no such tissue.
C) have a body cavity completely lined by mesodermal tissue, whereas pseudocoelomates do not.
D) have a complete digestive system with mouth and anus, whereas pseudocoelomates have a digestive tract with only one opening.
E) have a gut that lacks suspension within the body cavity, whereas pseudocoelomates have mesenteries that hold the digestive system in place.







Answer: C

A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny?

A researcher is trying to construct a molecular-based phylogeny of the entire animal kingdom. Assuming that none of the following genes is absolutely conserved, which of the following would be the best choice on which to base the phylogeny? 




A) genes involved in chitin synthesis
B) collagen genes
C) ß-catenin genes
D) genes involved in eye-lens synthesis
E) genes that cause radial body symmetry





Answer: B

Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that

Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that 





A) arthropods evolved before vertebrates did.
B) extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates.
C) ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life, and thus experienced a selective pressure to invade land.
D) vertebrates evolved from arthropods.
E) arthropods have had more time to coevolve with land plants than have vertebrates.






Answer: E

What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent? 1. tetrapods 2. vertebrates 3. deuterostomes 4. amniotes 5. bilaterians

What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent?
1. tetrapods
2. vertebrates
3. deuterostomes
4. amniotes
5. bilaterians 





A) 5 ? 3 ? 2 ? 4 ? 1
B) 5 ? 3 ? 2 ? 1 ? 4
C) 5 ? 3 ? 4 ? 2 ? 1
D) 3 ? 5 ? 4 ? 2 ? 1
E) 3 ? 5 ? 2 ? 1 ? 4







Answer: B

Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from earliest to most recent? 1. Protostomes invade terrestrial environments. 2. Cambrian explosion occurs. 3. Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments. 4. Vertebrates become top predators in the seas.

Fossil evidence indicates that the following events occurred in what sequence, from earliest to most recent?
1. Protostomes invade terrestrial environments.
2. Cambrian explosion occurs.
3. Deuterostomes invade terrestrial environments.
4. Vertebrates become top predators in the seas. 





A) 2 ? 4 ? 3 ? 1
B) 2 ? 1 ? 4 ? 3
C) 2 ? 4 ? 1 ? 3
D) 2 ? 3 ? 1 ? 4
E) 2 ? 1 ? 3 ? 4





Answer: C

Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships?

Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships? 



A) increased incidence of worm burrows in the fossil record
B) increased incidence of larger animals in the fossil record
C) increased incidence of organic material in the fossil record
D) increased incidence of fern galls in the fossil record
E) increased incidence of hard parts in the fossil record





Answer: E

In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A consequence of this occurrence is that

In individual insects of some species, whole chromosomes that carry larval genes are eliminated from the genomes of somatic cells at the time of metamorphosis. A consequence of this occurrence is that 





A) we could not clone a larva from the somatic cells of such an adult insect.
B) such species must reproduce only asexually.
C) the descendents of these adults do not include a larval stage.
D) metamorphosis can no longer occur among the descendents of such adults.
E) Two of these responses are correct.






Answer: A

The Hox genes came to regulate each of the following in what sequence, from earliest to most recent? 1. identity and position of paired appendages in protostome embryos 2. anterior-posterior orientation of segments in protostome embryos 3. positioning of tentacles in cnidarians 4. anterior-posterior orientation in vertebrate embryos

The Hox genes came to regulate each of the following in what sequence, from earliest to most recent?
1. identity and position of paired appendages in protostome embryos
2. anterior-posterior orientation of segments in protostome embryos
3. positioning of tentacles in cnidarians
4. anterior-posterior orientation in vertebrate embryos 






A) 4 ? 1 ? 3 ? 2
B) 4 ? 2 ? 3 ? 1
C) 4 ? 2 ? 1 ? 3
D) 3 ? 2 ? 1 ? 4
E) 3 ? 4 ? 1 ? 2





Answer: D

Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?

Which of the following is (are) unique to animals? 




A) cells that have mitochondria
B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin
C) nervous conduction and muscular movement
D) heterotrophy
E) Two of these responses are correct.






Answer: C

The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following most directly favors the evolution of the latter, more radical, kind of metamorphosis?

The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following most directly favors the evolution of the latter, more radical, kind of metamorphosis? 





A) natural selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B) changes in the homeobox genes governing early development
C) the evolution of meiosis
D) the development of an oxidizing atmosphere on Earth
E) the origin of a brain





Answer: B

The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to

The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to 




A) the ability to form haustoria and parasitize other organisms.
B) avoiding sexual reproduction until the environment changes.
C) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats.
D) the increased probability of contact between different mating types.
E) an extensive surface area well suited for invasive growth and absorptive nutrition.






Answer: E

Rose-picker's disease is caused by the yeast, Sporothrix schenkii. The yeast grows on the exteriors of rose-bush thorns. If a human gets pricked by such a thorn, the yeasts can be introduced under the skin. The yeasts then assume a hyphal morphology and grow along the interiors of lymphatic vessels until they reach a lymph node. This often results in the accumulation of pus in the lymph node, which subsequently ulcerates through the skin surface and then drains.

Rose-picker's disease is caused by the yeast, Sporothrix schenkii. The yeast grows on the exteriors of rose-bush thorns. If a human gets pricked by such a thorn, the yeasts can be introduced under the skin. The yeasts then assume a hyphal morphology and grow along the interiors of lymphatic vessels until they reach a lymph node. This often results in the accumulation of pus in the lymph node, which subsequently ulcerates through the skin surface and then drains. 



The answer to which of these questions would be of most assistance to one who is attempting to assign the genus Sporothrix to the correct fungal phylum? 

A) Do these yeasts perform fermentation while growing on the rose-bush thorns, or do they wait until inside a human host?
B) Does S. schenkii rely on animal infection to complete some part of its life cycle, or is the infection merely opportunistic?
C) Are the hyphae in lymphatic vessels septate, or are they coenocytic?
D) Is S. schenkii best described as a decomposer, parasite, pathogen, or mutualist of humans?
E) Being a yeast, does S. schenkii perform the process of budding?


Answer: B


Say S. schenkii had initially been classified as a deuteromycete. Asci were later discovered in the pus that oozed from an ulcerated lymph node, and the spores therein germinated, giving rise to S. schenkii yeasts. Which two of these are conclusions that make sense on the basis of this information? 

1. S. schenkii produces asexual spores within lymph nodes.
2. S. schenkii should be reclassified.
3. S. schenkii continues to have no known sexual stage.
4. The hyphae growing in lymphatic vessels probably belonged to a different fungal species.
5. S. schenkii yeasts belonging to two different mating strains were introduced by the same thorn prick.

A) 1 and 3
B) 1 and 5
C) 2 and 3
D) 2 and 5
E) 4 and 5


Answer: D


Humans have immune systems in which lymph nodes are important, because many phagocytes and lymphocytes reside there. Given that a successful infection by S. schenkii damages lymph nodes themselves, which of the following is most probable? 

A) The hyphae secrete antibiotics, which increases the ability of the infected human to tolerate the fungus.
B) Their conversion from yeast to hyphal morphology allows such fast growth that the body's defenses are at least temporarily overwhelmed.
C) Defensive cells of humans cannot detect foreign cells that are covered with cell walls composed of cellulose.
D) Given that most fungal pathogens attack plants, human defenses are simply not adapted to seek out and destroy fungi.
E) Given that most fungal pathogens of humans infect only the skin, human defenses are not adapted to seek out and destroy systemic fungal infections.


Answer: B

For several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the chytrid fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that consequently show areas of sloughed skin. They can also be lethargic, which is expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle typically takes four to five days, at the end of which zoospores are released from sporangia into the environment. In some amphibian species, mortality rates approach 100%; other species seem able to survive the infection.

For several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the chytrid fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that consequently show areas of sloughed skin. They can also be lethargic, which is expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle typically takes four to five days, at the end of which zoospores are released from sporangia into the environment. In some amphibian species, mortality rates approach 100%; other species seem able to survive the infection. 



Apart from direct amphibian-to-amphibian contact, what is the most likely means by which the zoospores spread from one free-living amphibian to another? 

A) by wind-blown spores
B) by flagella
C) by cilia
D) by pseudopods
E) by hyphae


Answer: B


The chytrid sporangia reside within the amphibian epidermal cells. Consequently, which term(s) apply to Bd? 

1. ectosymbionts
2. parasites
3. commensals
4. pathogens
5. endosymbionts

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 2, 3, and 5
E) 2, 4, and 5
Answer: E

Which of the following are protists, the organisms thought to share the closest ancestor with the chytrids? 

A) nucleariids 
B) choanoflagellates
C) zygomycetes
D) algae
E) diplomonads


Answer: A


Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd. A Bd sporangium initially contains a single, haploid cell. Which of the following processes must be involved in generating the multiple zoospores eventually produced by each sporangium? 

1. S phase
2. cytokinesis
3. mitosis
4. meiosis

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
E) 1, 2, and 4


Answer: D


Sexual reproduction has not been observed in Bd. If its morphology and genetics did not identify it as a chytridiomycete, then to which fungal group would Bd be assigned? 

A) ascomycetes
B) zygomycetes
C) glomeromycetes
D) basidiomycetes
E) deuteromycetes


Answer: E

If infection primarily involves the outermost layers of adult amphibian skin, and if the chytrids use the skin as their sole source of nutrition, then which term best applies to the chytrids? 

A) anaerobic chemoautotroph
B) aerobic chemoautotroph
C) anaerobic chemoheterotroph
D) aerobic chemoheterotroph


Answer: D


If Bd cannot grow properly at temperatures above 28°C (82°F), then, assuming the amphibians can survive, in which time or place should the chytrid infection proceed most rapidly? 

1. cooler months
2. warmer months
3. lower altitudes
4. higher altitudes

A) 1 or 3
B) 1 or 4
C) 2 or 3
D) 2 or 4


Answer: B


What makes it risky to rely on the presence of chitin in adult amphibian skin as the sole positive test for the presence of chytrids? 

A) Other mycoses may be in progress in the same amphibian simultaneously.
B) The amphibian may harbor arthropod ectoparasites simultaneously.
C) Bacterial infections may be simultaneously underway in the amphibian.
D) Three of the responses above are correct.
E) Two of the responses above are correct.


Answer: E


The fact that infection by Bd causes lethargy in many infected amphibians can have what effect on efforts to accurately census the numbers of dead or dying amphibians at a particular time, in a particular habitat? 

A) It can cause underestimation, due to infected amphibians preferring to seek out refuges relative to uninfected amphibians. 
B) It can cause underestimation, due to increased predation on, and removal of, infected amphibians relative to uninfected amphibians.
C) It can cause overestimation, because infected frogs should be more readily observable to human census-takers than should uninfected amphibians.
D) All three of the above statements are plausible.
E) Two of the above statements are plausible.


Answer: E


When adult amphibian skin harbors populations of the bacterium, Janthinobacterium lividum (Jl), chytrid infection seems to be inhibited. Which of the following represents the best experimental design for conclusively determining whether this inhibition is real? 

A) Inoculate uninfected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians continue to remain uninfected by chytrids.
B) Inoculate infected amphibians with Jl, and determine whether the amphibians recover from infection by chytrids.
C) Take infected amphibians and assign them to two populations. Leave one population alone; inoculate the other with Jl. Measure the rate at which infection proceeds in both populations.
D) Take infected amphibians and assign them to two populations. Inoculate one population with a high dose of Jl; inoculate the other with a low dose of Jl. Measure the survival frequency in both populations.


Answer: C


A researcher took water in which a Jl population had been thriving, filtered the water to remove all bacterial cells, and then applied the water to the skins of adult amphibians to see if there would subsequently be a reduced infection rate by Bd when frog skins were inoculated with Bd. For which of the following hypotheses is the procedure described a potential test? 

A) the hypothesis that a toxin secreted by Jl cells kills Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin
B) the hypothesis that Jl cells infect and kill Bd cells when both are present together on frog skin
C) the hypothesis that Jl outcompetes Bd when both are present together on a frog's skin
D) the hypothesis that the presence of Jl on frog skin causes a skin reaction that prevents attachment by Bd cells


Answer: A

Recent genetic studies of the structure of microsporidian genomes, as well as the sequences of their tubulin genes and the gene for RNA polymerase II, indicate that microsporidians are closely related to the fungi. Microsporidians lack flagella, centrioles, peroxisomes, and mitochondria (although they do have degenerate mitochondria, called mitosomes). They have the smallest genome of any eukaryote, and it is a genome that changes quickly. The genome is contained within two haploid nuclei. All microsporidians are obligate intracellular parasites. They use a unique organelle called a polar filament to gain access to the cells of their hosts. One species causes chronic diarrhea in AIDS patients. Another parasitizes Anopheles gambiae, the mosquito that transmits a fatal form of malaria to humans.

Recent genetic studies of the structure of microsporidian genomes, as well as the sequences of their tubulin genes and the gene for RNA polymerase II, indicate that microsporidians are closely related to the fungi. Microsporidians lack flagella, centrioles, peroxisomes, and mitochondria (although they do have degenerate mitochondria, called mitosomes). They have the smallest genome of any eukaryote, and it is a genome that changes quickly. The genome is contained within two haploid nuclei. All microsporidians are obligate intracellular parasites. They use a unique organelle called a polar filament to gain access to the cells of their hosts. One species causes chronic diarrhea in AIDS patients. Another parasitizes Anopheles gambiae, the mosquito that transmits a fatal form of malaria to humans. 



Given the eukaryotic structures they lack, it should be expected that microsporidians also lack 

A) the "9 + 2 pattern" of microtubules.
B) chitin.
C) lysosomes.
D) nuclei.
E) centrosomes.


Answer: A

The lifestyle of microsporidians is most similar to that of

A) scavengers.
B) viruses.
C) free-living yeasts.
D) ectoparasites.


Answer: B


Which of the following microsporidian features are shared with many other fungi? 

1. chitinous cell wall
2. two haploid nuclei per cell
3. polar filament
4. chemoheterotrophy

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1, 2, and 4
E) 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete, Neurospora crassa, contain 14 chromosomes. A single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores.

Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete, Neurospora crassa, contain 14 chromosomes. A single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores. 


If a single, diploid G2 nucleus in an ascus contains 400 nanograms (ng) of DNA, then a single ascospore nucleus of this species should contain how much DNA (ng), carried on how many chromosomes? 

A) 100, carried on 7 chromosomes
B) 100, carried on 14 chromosomes
C) 200, carried on 7 chromosomes
D) 200, carried on 14 chromosomes
E) 400, carried on 14 chromosomes


Answer: A

What is the ploidy of a single mature ascospore? 

A) monoploid
B) diploid
C) triploid
D) tetraploid
E) polyploid


Answer: A


Each of the eight ascospores present at the end of mitosis has the same chromosome number and DNA content (ng) as each of the four cells at the end of meiosis. What must have occurred in each spore between the round of meiosis and the round of mitosis? 

A) double fertilization 
B) crossing over
C) nondisjunction
D) autopolyploidy
E) S phase


Answer: E

Orchid seeds are tiny, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule cotyledons. If suBiology, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination, given what the seeds lack?

Orchid seeds are tiny, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule cotyledons. If such seeds are deposited in a dark, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination, given what the seeds lack? 





A) by transferring some chloroplasts to the embryo in each seed
B) by providing the seeds with water and minerals
C) by providing the embryos with some of the organic nutrients they have absorbed
D) by strengthening the seed coat that surrounds each seed





Answer: C

A billionaire buys a sterile volcanic island that recently emerged from the sea. To speed the arrival of conditions necessary for plant growth, the billionaire might be advised to aerially sow what over the island?

A billionaire buys a sterile volcanic island that recently emerged from the sea. To speed the arrival of conditions necessary for plant growth, the billionaire might be advised to aerially sow what over the island? 





A) basidiospores
B) spores of ectomycorrhizae
C) soredia
D) yeasts
E) leaves (as food for fungus-farming ants)






Answer: C

Sexual reproduction has never been observed among the fungi that produce the blue-green marbling of blue cheeses. What is true of these fungi and others that do not have a sexual stage?

Sexual reproduction has never been observed among the fungi that produce the blue-green marbling of blue cheeses. What is true of these fungi and others that do not have a sexual stage? 






A) They are currently classified among the ascomycetes.
B) They do not form heterokaryons.
C) Their spores are probably produced by mitosis.
D) Three of these responses are correct.
E) Two of these responses are correct.






Answer: C

If Penicillium typically secretes penicillin without disturbing the lichen relationship in which it is engaged, then what must have been true about its partner?

If Penicillium typically secretes penicillin without disturbing the lichen relationship in which it is engaged, then what must have been true about its partner? 






A) It should have lacked peptidoglycan in its cell wall.
B) It was probably a red alga.
C) It was probably a member of the domain Bacteria.
D) It was probably a heterotrophic prokaryote.
E) It was probably infected by bacteriophage.





Answer: A

When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the

When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the 






A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes.
B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed.
C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae.
D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue.






Answer: C

If haustoria from the fungal partner were to appear within the photosynthetic partner of a lichen, and if the growth rate of the photosynthetic partner consequently slowed substantially, then this would support the claim that

If haustoria from the fungal partner were to appear within the photosynthetic partner of a lichen, and if the growth rate of the photosynthetic partner consequently slowed substantially, then this would support the claim that 





A) algae and cyanobacteria are autotrophic.
B) lichens are not purely mutualistic relationships.
C) algae require maximal contact with the fungal partner in order to grow at optimal rates.
D) fungi get all of the nutrition they need via the "leakiness" of photosynthetic partners.
E) soredia are asexual reproductive structures combining both the fungal and photosynthetic partners.





Answer: B

Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens?

Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens? 




A) Fungal cells are enclosed within algal cells.
B) Lichen cells are enclosed within fungal cells.
C) Photosynthetic cells are surrounded by fungal hyphae.
D) The fungi grow on rocks and trees and are covered by algae.
E) Algal cells and fungal cells mix together without any apparent structure.





Answer: C

A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here?

A fungal spore germinates, giving rise to a mycelium that grows outward into the soil surrounding the site where the spore originally landed. Which of the following accounts for the fungal movement, as described here? 




A) karyogamy
B) mycelial flagella
C) alternation of generations
D) breezes distributing spores
E) cytoplasmic streaming in hyphae





Answer: E